HP High Court Court Manager Exam 2026

Question Paper dated 10 October 2026

Total Questions – 120

Questions 1–16: Management

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding management techniques:

Statement 1: Frederick Taylor’s ‘Functional Foremanship’ is a direct application of Henri Fayol’s ‘Unity of Command’ principle.

Statement 2: The ‘Differential Piece-Rate System’ aims to incentivize productivity by paying higher wages to workers who exceed standard output.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both statements are true
(B) Both statements are false
(C) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false
(D) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true

Q2. Organization structure establishes relationships between:

(A) Organization and environment
(B) Organization and society
(C) People, work and resources
(D) Suppliers and customers

Q3. The plan which includes objective, policy, procedure, and rules is called?

(A) Strategy
(B) Budget
(C) Programme
(D) All of the Above

Q4. Which one of the following does not follow the scalar chain?

(A) Functional structure
(B) Informal organization
(C) Formal organisation
(D) Divisional structure

Q5. Policy formulation is the function of:

(A) Top level management
(B) Middle level management
(C) Operational management
(D) All of the above

Q6. A manager needs three skills such as technical, human and ______.

(A) Conceptual
(B) Process
(C) Accuracy
(D) None

Q7. ______ is concerned with developing the employees in the present job.

(A) Manpower planning
(B) On-the-job training
(C) Job Description
(D) None of the above

Q8. The motivation theory which classifies need in hierarchical order is developed by:

(A) Fred Luthans
(B) Scott
(C) Abraham Maslow
(D) Peter F. Drucker

Q9. Span of management refers to:

(A) Number of managers
(B) Length of term for which a manager is appointed
(C) Number of subordinates under a superior
(D) Number of members in top management

Q10. ______ is a set of techniques and tools for improving the capability of business processes.

(A) Quality circle
(B) Six sigma
(C) Management
(D) All of these

Q11. What is the full form of MBO?

(A) Management By Opportunity
(B) Method By Opportunity
(C) Management By Objectives
(D) Method By Objective

Q12. Which one of the following statements about management by exception is least likely to be correct?

(A) Managers can focus efforts on the most critical areas.
(B) It is beneficial when directed at controllable items.
(C) It could result in changing a process altogether.
(D) Positive variances need not be investigated.

Q13. Flora is comparing the monthly budget to actual revenues and expenses. Flora is engaged in the ______ function.

(A) Coordinating
(B) Directing
(C) Controlling
(D) Planning

Q14. Who is called the Father of Scientific Management?

(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Peter F. Drucker
(C) F.W. Taylor
(D) Elton Mayo

Q15. Pure science principles are rigid, whereas management principles are relatively ______.

(A) Fixed
(B) Inflexible
(C) Flexible
(D) Absolute

Q16. Communication saves time in:

(A) Internal communication
(B) Interview
(C) Oral communication
(D) Schedule

Questions 17–24: Communication and Organizational Behaviour

Q17. ______ are welcome, for it is not obligatory to accept them.

(A) Suggestion
(B) Order
(C) Courtesy
(D) Complaint

Q18. ______ refers to the special language of a trade.

(A) Jargon
(B) Expression
(C) Colloquialism
(D) Suggestion

Q19. An effort to influence the attitude and feelings of others is ______.

(A) Persuasion
(B) Suggestion
(C) Advice
(D) Appreciation

Q20. The communication cycle, the process of re-translation of signals into ideas, is called:

(A) Encoding
(B) Decoding
(C) Response
(D) Feedback

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Q21. Strategic planning as a broad concept consists of:

(A) Corporate strategy and business strategy
(B) Strategy formulation and strategy implementation
(C) Inputs and outputs
(D) Environmental analysis and internal analysis

Q22. A study of the culture and practices in different societies is called:

(A) Personality
(B) Anthropology
(C) Perception
(D) Attitudes

Q23. Edward Tolman is related to:

(A) Behaviourist Framework
(B) Cognitive approach
(C) Social Cognitive Framework
(D) None of these

Q24. A manager with good ______ can make the workplace more pleasant.

(A) Communication
(B) Knowledge
(C) Experience
(D) Interpersonal Skills

Questions 25–32: Organizational Development and Motivation

Q25. Organization development (OD) is founded on the belief that using behavioural science methods to increase collaborative problem-solving would increase:

(A) Organizational effectiveness
(B) Organizational reputation
(C) Organizational turnover
(D) Organizational climate

Q26. In the stage of group development known as “Norming,” group members:

(A) Establish rules and norms
(B) Experience conflicts and disagreements
(C) Work together cohesively and effectively
(D) Evaluate their performance and outcomes

Q27. The least used communication channel in an organization is usually:

(A) Upward
(B) Downward
(C) Diagonal
(D) Horizontal

Q28. Which of these types of persons would have an ideology and a cause to fight and achieve their set goal?

(A) Self-disciplined
(B) Self-driven
(C) Self-confident
(D) Self-actualised

Q29. Which of these is the result of the multiplication of expectancy and valence according to Vroom’s theory?

(A) Organization
(B) Delegation
(C) Management
(D) Motivation

Q30. What is caused as a result of our modern life and to cope with the anxiety due to it?

(A) Distress
(B) Eustress
(C) Depression
(D) None of the above

Q31. Which of the following theories gives the way by which the requirements can be transformed into performance or behaviour?

(A) Expectancy theory
(B) Herzberg’s theory
(C) Process theory
(D) Maslow’s theory

Q32. Which of the following theories provides an idea about what employees need and identifies the crucial factors that managers can use to motivate employees?

(A) Content theory
(B) Process Theory
(C) Maslow’s theory
(D) Herzberg’s theory

Questions 33–40: Attribution Theory and Correlation

Q33. According to Attribution Theory, if all people who have faced similar situations react and respond in a very similar manner, the behaviour is said to show which of the following?

(A) Reliability
(B) Consensus
(C) Consistency
(D) Similarity

Q34. The kind of actions that are more likely to be influenced by external causes are ______.

(A) Actions with high distinctiveness, low consensus, and low consistency
(B) Actions with low distinctiveness, high consensus, and low consistency
(C) Actions with high distinctiveness, low consensus, and high consistency
(D) Actions with low distinctiveness, high consensus, and high consistency

Q35. Ambiguous word meanings are factors of ______ barriers.

(A) Psychological
(B) Physiological
(C) Semantic
(D) Physical

Q36. Correlation analysis is a:

(A) Univariate analysis
(B) Bivariate analysis
(C) Multivariate analysis
(D) Both B and C

Q37. If a change in one variable results in a corresponding change in the other variable, then the variables are ______.

(A) Correlated
(B) Not correlated
(C) Any of the above
(D) None of the above

Q38. When the values of two variables move in the same direction, correlation is said to be:

(A) Linear
(B) Non-linear
(C) Positive
(D) Negative

Q39. ______ refers to the analysis of the average relationship between two variables to provide a mechanism for prediction.

(A) Correlation
(B) Regression
(C) Standard error
(D) None of these

Q40. If (r = \pm 1), the two regression lines are ______.

(A) Coincident
(B) Parallel
(C) Perpendicular to each other
(D) None of these

Questions 41–47: Operations Research and Research Methodology

Q41. What is the formula for calculating the Net Present Value (NPV) of a series of cash flows?

(A) NPV = Initial Investment / Discount Rate
(B) NPV = Σ (Cash Flows) / (1 + Discount Rate)^t
(C) NPV = Final Value − Initial Investment
(D) NPV = Cash Flows × Discount Rate

Q42. In linear programming, what is a constraint?

(A) A limitation on the decision variables
(B) An objective function to be maximized
(C) A scenario analysis
(D) A fixed cost

Q43. What is the primary purpose of a control chart in quality management?

(A) To display cumulative frequency distribution
(B) To identify the most significant factors contributing to a problem
(C) To monitor a process and detect variations
(D) To represent a normal distribution

Q44. Which of the following should not be a criterion for a good research project?

(A) Demonstrates the abilities of the researcher
(B) Is dependent on the completion of other projects
(C) Demonstrates the integration of different fields of knowledge
(D) Develops the skills of the researcher

Q45. In linear programming, the objective function is:

(A) Always maximization
(B) Always minimization
(C) Either max or min
(D) Not required

Q46. The time by which a non-critical activity can be delayed without delaying the project is called:

(A) Free time
(B) Slack or Float
(C) Critical timed
(D) Dummy time

Q47. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Quantitative research has been subjected to many criticisms by qualitative researchers.

Reason (R): A natural science model is not appropriate for studying the social world.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Questions 48–53: Research Methods

Q48. In which of the following research methods does the process of hypothesis testing optimally safeguard the role of extraneous variables?

(A) Ex post facto method
(B) Experimental method
(C) Historical method
(D) Descriptive survey method

Q49. Which of the following factors must be taken into account in quantitative research?

(A) Measurement
(B) Causality
(C) Replication
(D) Exclusion of statistical analysis
(E) Less importance to standardisation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) A, B, and C only
(B) B, C, and D only
(C) C, D, and E only
(D) A, C, and D only

Q50. ______ is referred to as “the father of research on teaching”?

(A) N. L. Gage
(B) David Berliner
(C) Egon Brunswik
(D) Donald T. Campbell

Q51. The main purpose of research in education is to:

(A) Increase social status of an individual
(B) Increase job prospects of an individual
(C) Help in the personal growth of an individual
(D) Help the candidate become an eminent educationist

Q52. ______ refers to inferring about the whole population based on the sample.

(A) Pseudo-inference
(B) Objective inference
(C) Inductive inference
(D) Deductive inference

Q53. Sampling is advantageous as it:

(A) Saves time
(B) Helps in capital-saving
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Eliminates the possibility of any sampling error

Questions 54–60: Research and Statistics

Q54. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society?

(A) To discover new things
(B) To keep pace with the advancement in knowledge
(C) To systematically examine and critically analyse investigations/sources with objectivity
(D) All of the above

Q55. What do you consider as the main aim of interdisciplinary research?

(A) To oversimplify the problem of research
(B) To bring out a holistic approach to research
(C) To create a new trend in research methodology
(D) To reduce the emphasis of a single subject in the research domain

Q56. Bibliography given in a research report:

(A) Shows vast knowledge of the researcher
(B) Helps those interested in further research
(C) Has no relevance to research
(D) All the above

Q57. Fundamental research reflects the ability to:

(A) Synthesize new ideals
(B) Expound new principles
(C) Evaluate the existing material concerning research
(D) Study the existing literature regarding various topics

Q58. Which correlation coefficient best explains the relationship between creativity and intelligence?

(A) 1.00
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.3

Q59. Manipulation is always a part of:

(A) Historical research
(B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) Experimental research

Q60. We use Factorial Analysis:

(A) To know the relationship between two variables
(B) To test the hypothesis
(C) To know the difference between two variables
(D) To know the difference among the many variables

Questions 61–74: Financial Management, HRM and DBMS

Q61. Net working capital is equal to:

(A) Excess of total assets over total liabilities
(B) Excess of current assets over current liabilities
(C) Aggregate current assets of the firm
(D) Excess of total assets over total current liabilities

Q62. The objectives of financial management are:

(A) Profit Maximization
(B) Wealth Maximization
(C) Both Profit and Wealth Maximization
(D) None of these

Q63. Combined leverage measures the impact of change in contribution on ______.

(A) Equity capital
(B) Debt capital
(C) Capital structure
(D) EPS

Q64. CAPM stands for:

(A) Capital Asset Pricing Model
(B) Capital Amount Printing Model
(C) Capital Amount Pricing Model
(D) Capital Asset Printing Model

Q65. What does financial leverage measure?

(A) No change with EBIT and EPS
(B) The sensitivity of EBIT with percentage change with respect to output
(C) The sensitivity of EPS with respect to percentage change in EBIT
(D) Percentage variation in the level of production

Q66. Under the payback period:

(A) We compute the time required to recoup the original investment
(B) There is no consideration of inflows after the cutoff period
(C) The time value of money is ignored
(D) All of the above are correct

Q67. Who proposed the two-factor (Hygiene Factors and Motivators) theory of employee motivation?

(A) Frederick Herzberg
(B) J. S. Adams
(C) Clayton Alderfer
(D) Douglas McGregor

Q68. Which of the following is not a Human Resource Planning technique?

(A) Expert-Estimate Technique
(B) Ranking Technique
(C) Trend Projection Technique
(D) Modelling Technique

Q69. The three components of Victor Vroom’s Expectancy Theory of Motivation are:

(A) Expectancy, Instrumentality, Valence
(B) Effort, Satisfaction, Motivation
(C) Needs, Drives, Reinforcement
(D) Equity, Instrumentality, Efficiency

Q70. Assertion (A): Human resource manager helps an organization to reach its goals.

Reason (R): Human resource manager needs to get the right people into the right place at the right time.

Codes:

(A) Both A and R are correct
(B) Both A and R are incorrect
(C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(D) A is correct but R is incorrect

Q71. Arrange the following steps involved in recruitment and selection procedure in the correct order.

1. Application blank
2. Interviewing
3. Requisition
4. Medical test
5. On-the-job test and selection
6. Psychological test
7. Recruitment codes
8. Trade test

(A) 3, 1, 4, 2, 8, 5, 7, 6
(B) 2, 4, 6, 8, 1, 3, 5, 7
(C) 3, 7, 1, 8, 6, 2, 4, 5
(D) 3, 2, 7, 8, 6, 1, 4, 5

Q72. PAQ stands for:

(A) Position Alteration Quotient
(B) Position Analysis Questionnaire
(C) Position Activity Question
(D) Program Analytical Questionnaire

Q73. Sensitivity training method was developed by ______.

(A) Bill Gates
(B) Kurt Lewin
(C) Henry Fayol
(D) F. W. Taylor

Q74. Which of the following is not a property of DBMS?

(A) Increase data redundancy
(B) Integration of data
(C) Improved security
(D) Achieving data independence

Questions 75–80: Computer Fundamentals

Q75. A group of conducting wires or lines over which electrical signals corresponding to data and instructions are transmitted is:

(A) Bus
(B) Path
(C) System
(D) Stock

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Q76. URL stands for:

(A) Ultimate Resource Locator
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Uniform Retrieval Language
(D) Ultimate Retrieval Language

Q77. Which of the following is associated with an error detector?

(A) Odd parity bit
(B) Even parity bit
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above

Q78. ASCII stands for:

(A) American Stable Code for International Interchange
(B) American Standard Case for Institutional Interchange
(C) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) American Standard Code for Interchange Information

Q79. Who designed the first electronic computer ENIAC?

(A) Van Neumann
(B) Joseph M. Jacquard
(C) J. Presper Eckert and John W. Mauchly
(D) All of the above

Q80. What is the method of safeguarding highly confidential information, such as corporate data or credit card information, while it is being transmitted across the Internet?

(A) Cryptography
(B) Antivirus package
(C) Firewalls and Proxy Servers
(D) Digital Certificates

Questions 81–89: Current Affairs and General Knowledge

Q81. Who assumed charge as the Commandant of the College of Defence Management (CDM), Secunderabad, on October 1, 2025?

(A) Lieutenant General Harsh Chhibber
(B) Major General G. Srinivas
(C) Vice Marshal GKJ Reddy
(D) Rear Admiral Sanjay Datt

Q82. Who was elected as the 37th President of the BCCI on September 28, 2025?

(A) Sourav Ganguly
(B) Roger Binny
(C) Mithun Manhas
(D) Jaydev Shah

Q83. Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2025?

(A) Peter Howitt
(B) Maria Corina Machado
(C) Joel Mokyr
(D) Laszlo Krasznahorkai

Q84. Who became the first Indian pacer and seventh cricketer overall to play 50 matches in all three formats of cricket?

(A) Mohammed Shami
(B) Jasprit Bumrah
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Mohammed Siraj

Q85. Who has been nominated for the Best Performance by an Actor award at the 2025 International Emmy Awards from India?

(A) Ranbir Kapoor
(B) Diljit Dosanjh
(C) Vicky Kaushal
(D) Ayushmann Khurrana

Q86. Which three states have less than 2% of their population below the poverty line, according to the RBI study?

(A) Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
(C) Gujarat, Maharashtra and Goa
(D) Bihar, Jharkhand and Odisha

Q87. Which of the following statements is/are correct about gender parity in the Nobel Prize?

I. The share of women among Nobel Prize winners is highest in the fields of Literature and Peace.
II. The share of women among Nobel Prize winners is lowest in Physics, followed by other sciences.
III. Since the Nobel Prizes were first awarded in 1901, only 68 women (6.6% of all winners) have received the Nobel Prize out of a total of 1,026 laureates.

Correct code is:

(A) Only I and II
(B) Only III
(C) All I, II and III
(D) None of the above

Q88. Which of the following is an exothermic reaction?

(A) Electrolysis of water
(B) Conversion of limestone into quicklime
(C) Process of respiration
(D) Process of photosynthesis

Q89. The River Danube does not flow through which one of the following capital cities in Europe?

(A) Belgrade
(B) Budapest
(C) Prague
(D) Vienna

Questions 90–100: General Knowledge and Himachal Pradesh GK

Q90. Which of the following statements with reference to Easter Island, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is/are correct?

1. It is part of the Polynesia group of islands.
2. It is a territory of the South American nation Chile.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q91. Consider the following statements with reference to the India–Algeria Defence Cooperation Framework:

1. The Joint Defence Commission serves as a formal structured mechanism to oversee and implement the bilateral defence cooperation agreement between India and Algeria.
2. The recently signed Rules of Procedure mandate that all future joint naval exercises between the two nations must be conducted exclusively within the Mediterranean Sea region.
3. The primary objective of this engagement is to streamline collaboration mechanisms and effectively guide all future Joint Commission commitments between the two countries.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(A) All three statements are correct.
(B) There is no correct statement.
(C) There are two correct statements that include Statement 3.
(D) There is only one correct statement.

Q92. In which district of Himachal Pradesh is the Ima-Vimla Valley located?

(A) Kullu
(B) Mandi
(C) Shimla
(D) Chamba

Q93. Which ancient people/tribe are particularly associated with the Chamba region?

(A) Audumbaras
(B) Koli
(C) Khas
(D) Kunindas

Q94. Who was the first recipient of the Pahari Poetry Award instituted by the Himachal Pradesh Government?

(A) Jaidev Kiran
(B) Dr. Biryam Singh
(C) Pandit Chandradhar Sharma Guleri
(D) Harikrishna Premi

Q95. What is the real name of the present Dalai Lama?

(A) Tenzin Gyatso
(B) Tenzing Kastro
(C) Dalai Lama Misra Gyatso
(D) Sonam Gyatso

Q96. From which city in India was the First Anglo-Afghan War formally announced in 1838?

(A) Delhi
(B) Calcutta
(C) Shimla
(D) Lahore

Q97. Which three traditional products of Himachal Pradesh recently received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag?

(A) Pashmina shawls, wooden toys, and metal crafts
(B) Ransingha, wood carving, and hand-woven carpets
(C) Kangra tea, Kullu shawls, and Chamba rumal
(D) Basohli paintings, silver jewellery, and woollen caps

Q98. Which panchayats of Himachal Pradesh received awards under the National Panchayat Awards 2026?

(A) Shansha and Lohardi
(B) Mashobra and Mulah
(C) Kinnaur and Mandi
(D) Patlandar and Shansha

Q99. In which district and constituency is Himachal’s first ozone-based drinking water treatment project being set up?

(A) Shimla, Chopal
(B) Kangra, Dehra
(C) Mandi, Sarkaghat
(D) Kullu, Anni

Q100. Consider the following statements:

I. In Q2 FY26, India’s CAD stood at around 1.3 per cent of GDP.
II. India’s external debt stood at USD 746 billion at end-September 2025.
III. External debt-to-GDP ratio stood at 20 per cent at the end of September 2025.

Choose the correct option:

(A) Only I and II are correct
(B) Only II and III are correct
(C) Only I and III are correct
(D) All I, II and III are correct

Questions 101–110: English, Reasoning and Aptitude

Q101. Which of the phrases (A), (B) and (C) given below should replace the phrase printed in italics to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as given and no correction is required, mark (D).

Seeing that there was an ongoing sale in one of her favourite stores, Seeta “made a bee-line” for it immediately after entering the Mall.

(A) Made a bee’s line for
(B) Make bees lined to
(C) Made bee-line to
(D) No correction required

Q102. The question below has two blanks, each indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The water transport project on the West Coast is ______ to get a shot in the arm with a new plan in which the Road Development Corporation will build the infrastructure and ______ a private party to operate the service.

(A) Scheduled – let
(B) Verge – permit
(C) Set – sanctions
(D) Slated – allow

Q103. In this question, choose the option which can be substituted for the given words.

To cancel (a law, agreement, etc.) formally or officially.

(A) Terminate
(B) Adjure
(C) Object
(D) Abrogate

Q104. Directions: The following sentence has been divided into four parts, labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a grammatical error. Identify the part that contains the error. If the sentence is grammatically correct, select the appropriate option.

(A) I soon lost sight and recollection of ghastly fears
(B) in the beauty of the scene as we drove along
(C) although had I known the language, or rather languages which my fellow passengers were speaking
(D) I might not have been able to throw them off so easily.

Q105. Rearrange the letters of the jumbled word to identify the correct word, and select the option below which is opposite in meaning to that word.

SISPNHAPE

(A) Surrender
(B) Quickness
(C) Richness
(D) Sorrow

Q106. Select the letter-cluster from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series:

BEK, DGM, FIO, HKQ, ?

(A) KSA
(B) JAS
(C) JMS
(D) KJS

Q107. The given statements are followed by two conclusions. Find out which conclusion is TRUE based on the given statements.

Statements: J > K = L, M ≥ N < K, O < J < P, N > Q > R

Conclusions:

I. P > M
II. N < P

(A) Only conclusion I is true
(B) Only conclusion II is true
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(D) Both conclusions I and II are true

Directions (Q108–110): Study the information below to answer these questions.

In a family of six persons, who form three generations, every member has a different profession and likes a different colour. There are two couples in the family.

• Nitin is a Chartered Accountant.
• Nitin’s wife, Supriya, is not a doctor, and she does not like green colour.
• The engineer likes red colour, and his wife is a teacher.
• Kamini is the mother-in-law of Supriya, and she likes orange colour.
• Ram Swaroop is the grandfather of Ayaan, who is a principal and likes black colour.
• Ayanna is the granddaughter of Kamini, and she likes blue colour.
• Ayanna’s mother likes white colour, and her father likes green colour.

Q108. Who is the engineer by profession?

(A) Ayanna
(B) Kamini
(C) Supriya
(D) Ram Swaroop

Q109. What is Supriya’s profession?

(A) Engineer
(B) Doctor
(C) Teacher
(D) Can’t be determined

Q110. Which colour is liked by the Chartered Accountant?

(A) Orange
(B) White
(C) Green
(D) Red

Questions 111–120: Hindi, Polity and Law

Q111. चंचल मन वाला’ अर्थ के लिए सही लोकोक्ति कौन-सी है?

(A) गुड़ खाय गुलगुलों से परहेज
(B) गोद में बैठकर आँख में उँगली
(C) अधजल गगरी छलकत जाए
(D) घड़ी में तोला घड़ी में माशा

Q112. ‘सिंह वन में रहता है।’ वाक्य में कारक है—

(A) अपादान कारक
(B) करण कारक
(C) अधिकरण कारक
(D) संबंध कारक

Q113. ‘दुर्भाग्य’ शब्द में किस उपसर्ग का प्रयोग हुआ है?

(A) दुर्
(B) दुः
(C) दुष्
(D) दु

Q114. जंगल में लगी आग को क्या कहते हैं?

(A) कारस्थाग्नि
(B) दावानल
(C) बड़वानल
(D) जठरानल

Q115. ‘अभिभाव’ शब्द का विलोम क्या है?

(A) तिरोभाव
(B) प्रादुर्भाव
(C) प्रकट
(D) उद्भव

Q116. Which one of the following sets of Bills is presented to Parliament along with the Budget?

(A) Direct Taxes Bill and Indirect Taxes Bill
(B) Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
(C) Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
(D) Finance Bill and Contingency Bill

Q117. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution does not prohibit:

(A) Class legislation
(B) Special treatment to an individual
(C) Treatment of unequal at an equal footing
(D) Reasonable classification

Q118. Which article of the Indian Constitution abolished the practice of untouchability?

(A) Article 14
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 19

Q119. Criminal intention (mens rea) refers to:

(A) Reason behind committing an act
(B) Guilty mind accompanying the act
(C) Punishment given by court
(D) Public reaction to crime

Q120. Specific performance means:

(A) Payment of damages
(B) Actual execution of the contract as agreed
(C) Cancellation of contract
(D) Criminal punishment

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