Total Questions – 50 Maximum Marks – 100
Time – 1 Hour!
No Negative Marking
1. The wrong number in the series
7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 342, 511 is:
(A) 215
(B) 28
(C) 342
(D) 511
2. The area of a parallelogram is 147 cm² and its base is thrice the corresponding altitude. What is the length of the base?
(A) 21 cm
(B) 49 cm
(C) 7 cm
(D) 14 cm
3. Rekha and Manvi can do a piece of work in 9 hours. Manvi and Madhu can do it in 12 hours and Rekha and Madhu can do it in 18 hours. Then, Rekha, Manvi and Madhu will finish the work together in:
(A) 6 hours
(B) 7 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 9 hours
4. If a 450 meter long train is moving at 54 km/h, then the train crosses an electric pole in:
(A) 20 seconds
(B) 25 seconds
(C) 30 seconds
(D) 35 seconds
5. A dealer purchased a play station for Rs. 35,000. He allows a discount of 12% on its market price and still gains 10%. The market price of the play station is:
(A) Rs. 42,750
(B) Rs. 43,750
(C) Rs. 44,750
(D) Rs. 45,750
6. BTE11 is related to DVG120 in a certain way. In the same way, PAN9 is related to RCP80. Then, in the same way, GMT12 is related to:
(A) IOV143
(B) IOW143
(C) OIV134
(D) IOV119
7. Choose the figure which is different from the others.
8. Which pramana bridges the gap between perception and inference by relying on?
(A) Sabda
(B) Upamana
(C) Arthapatti
(D) Anupalabdhi
9. A key feature of deductive reasoning is:
(A) It always involves experiments
(B) It leads to probable conclusions
(C) It ensures certainty if valid
(D) It is based on patterns only
10. Statements:
Some books are novels.
All novels are interesting.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are interesting.
II. All books are interesting.
Then,
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
11. The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was launched in:
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2008
(D) 2010
12. Which pollutant is linked to Ozone depletion?
(A) CO₂
(B) SO₂
(C) NO₂
(D) CFCs
13. Assertion (A): Hydropower is considered renewable.
Reason (R): It depends on the water cycle driven by solar energy.
Then,
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true
14. Which of the following pollutants is most strongly associated with kidney damage?
(A) Ozone
(B) Cadmium
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Methane
15. SDG 13 (Climate Action) is strongly linked with which global agreement?
(A) Paris Agreement
(B) Kyoto Protocol only
(C) Basel Convention
(D) Montreal Protocol
16. Outcome-Based Education (OBE) focuses mainly on:
(A) Teaching method
(B) Infrastructure development
(C) Administrative efficiency and Teaching method both
(D) Learning outcomes and competencies
17. The concept of “ecological footprint” is used to measure:
(A) Population density
(B) Climate variability
(C) Human demand on natural resources
(D) Industrial output
18. In the context of ancient Indian education, the concept of “Para” and “Apara” vidya primarily signifies:
(A) Religious vs. secular education
(B) Higher spiritual knowledge vs. worldly knowledge
(C) Oral vs. written knowledge
(D) Teacher-centered vs. student-centered learning
19. In ancient Indian pedagogy, the term “Upanayana” signifies:
(A) Completion of education
(B) Award of degree
(C) Beginning of formal education and initiation into learning
(D) Public debate ceremony
20. Which global ranking system evaluates universities worldwide?
(A) NIRF
(B) NAAC
(C) AISHE
(D) QS World Ranking
21. Which faculty has the highest proportion of distance students relative to its total strength?
(A) Science
(B) Arts
(C) Commerce
(D) Law
22. What is the ratio of regular students in Engineering to distance students in Arts?
(A) 8 : 5
(B) 4 : 3
(C) 3 : 2
(D) 2 : 1
23. If 10% of regular students in Science shift to distance mode, what will be the new number of distance students in Science?
(A) 210
(B) 212
(C) 215
(D) 218
24. If the university increases its total enrolment by 5% equally across all faculties, what will be the new total strength?
(A) 2180
(B) 2200
(C) 2190
(D) 2210
25. If Law doubles its distance students, what will be the new percentage of distance students in the university?
(A) 41%
(B) 40%
(C) 42%
(D) 43%
26. Which one of the devices connects a computer to the internet?
(A) Modem
(B) Plotter
(C) Printer
(D) Hard Disk
27. The DIKSHA platform mainly focuses on:
(A) Medical research
(B) Engineering and science courses only
(C) Teachers education and school level resources
(D) Industrial training
28. In data storage terminology, SSD is increasingly replacing HDD. What does SSD stand for?
(A) Solid Storage Disk
(B) Solid State Drive
(C) Static Storage Device
(D) Secure System Disk
29. Which network condition is most harmful for real-time conference?
(A) High bandwidth
(B) Low latency
(C) Packet loss
(D) Stable connection
30. Which model of e-governance involves interaction between government and citizens?
(A) G2G
(B) G2B
(C) G2C
(D) B2B
31. The passage suggests that ICT in higher education has:
(A) Only enhanced communication effectiveness
(B) Expanded reach but introduced new challenges
(C) Eliminated interpersonal engagement completely
(D) Reduced the importance of dialogue
32. The phrase “risk of superficial learning” implies that:
(A) ICT may encourage surface-level understanding without reflection
(B) ICT always leads to deep learning
(C) ICT eliminates the need for teachers
(D) ICT prevents access to knowledge
33. The passage implies that educators must:
(A) Focus only on clarity of message
(B) Cultivate dialogue and reflective thinking
(C) Avoid ICT in teaching
(D) Deliver content without adaptation
34. The transformative aspect of communication refers to:
(A) Shaping learners’ ability to question and contribute to knowledge
(B) Increasing the speed of information delivery
(C) Reducing teacher-student interaction
(D) Simplifying memorization of facts
35. Which of the following is an implicit assumption in the passage?
(A) ICT alone cannot ensure meaningful learning
(B) Human interaction is irrelevant in higher education
(C) Dialogue reduces the effectiveness of teaching
(D) Knowledge creation does not require communication
36. Communication is fundamentally a process of:
(A) Transmitting information
(B) Creating shared meaning
(C) Imposing authority
(D) Memorizing facts
37. The communication model proposed by Claude Shannon and Warren Weaver is primarily concerned with:
(A) Semantic meaning
(B) Cultural context
(C) Emotional expression
(D) Technical transmission of signals
38. Feedback in communication ensures:
(A) One-way transmission
(B) Closure of communication loop
(C) Elimination of sender
(D) Avoidance of interaction
39. In mass communication, the role of gatekeepers is to:
(A) Block communication completely
(B) Encourage free flow of information
(C) Control and filter information before dissemination
(D) Eliminate feedback
40. In communication theory, “noise” refers to:
(A) Background sounds only
(B) Feedback delay
(C) Silence in communication
(D) Any disturbance that distorts the message
41. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective formative assessment?
(A) Immediate feedback
(B) Diagnostic purpose
(C) Summative grading
(D) Continuous monitoring
42. The project method of teaching is most effective in:
(A) Developing practical skills and teamwork
(B) Memorizing factual content
(C) Preparing for standardized tests
(D) Maintaining classroom discipline
43. The term “constructivism” in teaching refers to:
(A) Teacher-centered instruction
(B) Students constructing knowledge through active engagement
(C) Strict adherence to syllabus
(D) Passive absorption of information
44. The most effective way to integrate ICT in higher education teaching is:
(A) Replacing textbooks entirely
(B) Limiting ICT to administrative tasks
(C) Using ICT tools to enhance interactivity and research access
(D) Avoiding ICT to maintain traditional methods
45. Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) focuses on:
(A) Only academic achievement
(B) Holistic development of learners
(C) Teacher’s convenience
(D) Final examination performance
46. A hypothesis is:
(A) A proven fact
(B) A research finding
(C) A statistical conclusion
(D) A tentative statement subject to verification
47. In qualitative research, the most common data collection methods are:
(A) Surveys with closed-ended questions
(B) Experiments with control groups
(C) Interviews, observations and case studies
(D) Statistical sampling
48. Which of the following is a non-probability sampling technique?
(A) Simple random sampling
(B) Stratified sampling
(C) Purposive sampling
(D) Cluster sampling
49. Reliability of a research instrument refers to:
(A) Its ability to measure what it is supposed to measure
(B) Its consistency in producing similar results
(C) Its relevance to the research topic
(D) Its acceptance by the academic community
50. The ethical principle of informed consent ensures that:
(A) Participants are selected randomly
(B) Researchers can use data freely
(C) Participants are fully aware of the nature and risks of the study
(D) Results are published without bias
